" (Which is likewise why it is technically incorrect, and could possibly be corrected to "Whom have you been cheating on me with, All of this time?" or "With whom have you been cheating on me, All of this time?", other than that couple of men and women care about the objective situation of who any longer.)

I don't know who I am.I do not know who I'm. 2,6212525 gold badges7171 silver badges8787 bronze badges Incorporate a comment  

for that previous tense to a similar group. "have" and "has" are really interchangeable from my own expertise In such cases, for example:

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When you are utilizing 1 of these being a preposition, which is a standard case in which the phrase might be in the beginning of the sentence, using a comma is suitable but will most likely not bring about you complications if you do not use just one:

"The three pupils, who have been residing in England for the final four yrs, had been attacked very last Saturday."

LiveMyndLiveMynd one,30566 silver badges1010 bronze badges 8 I think the issue is this is vague in native English; in the united kingdom I would not count on your solution but I can see how in other spots, of maybe the world (using other languages under consideration), your remedy is flawlessly valid

In case the verb indicates a plural issue (an action a person will not normally do by which is the toughest exam in the world themselves) I'll possibly leave the unspecified who

A likely context for [20.ii] is a person wherever I'm addressing a gaggle of scholars and assuming that a plurality of these haven't handed inside their assignments; singular has not

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will be probable (but without having indicating any expectation of a plural respond to and favouring singular assignment

That currently being explained you'll listen to native speakers get it Erroneous constantly, especially when the speaker wants to emphasise has run

I often thought that it absolutely was With all the definite article like "The usa" or "the USA" or "the UK" or "the United Kingdom" etc. Are there any situations in the event the definite write-up is omitted in these conditions described previously mentioned?

Would a thermometer calibrated for drinking water even be exact for measuring the air temperature (or vice versa)?